CompTIA Security+ Certification Practice Test

Preparing for the CompTIA Security+ exam can be a daunting task, but practice tests are a great way to prepare. They help you become familiar with the exam format and the type of questions you might encounter. Below are 25 multiple-choice questions that cover a range of topics you might see on the CompTIA Security+ exam. After each question, the correct answer and an explanation are provided to help you understand the rationale behind it.

1. Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?

A) RSA
B) ECC
C) AES
D) DSA

Answer:

C) AES

Explanation:

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a symmetric encryption algorithm, while RSA, ECC, and DSA are asymmetric encryption algorithms.

2. What type of malware disguises itself as legitimate software?

A) Worm
B) Trojan
C) Virus
D) Spyware

Answer:

B) Trojan

Explanation:

A Trojan disguises itself as legitimate software to trick the user into installing it, subsequently delivering its malicious payload.

3. Which security principle prevents any single person or system from having complete control over a process or system?

A) Least Privilege
B) Separation of Duties
C) Implicit Deny
D) Risk Avoidance

Answer:

B) Separation of Duties

Explanation:

Separation of Duties (SoD) is a security principle aimed at preventing any single individual or system from having complete control over a process or system to mitigate the risk of malicious activity.

4. What is the purpose of a VPN?

A) Virus Protection Network
B) Creating a secure private network over the internet
C) Protecting the network from DDoS attacks
D) Managing network bandwidth

Answer:

B) Creating a secure private network over the internet

Explanation:

A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is used to create a secure and encrypted connection over the internet, allowing secure communication between remote sites or users.

5. What type of attack involves exploiting a vulnerability in a system before the vendor releases a patch?

A) Zero-day attack
B) Phishing attack
C) DDoS attack
D) Man-in-the-middle attack

Answer:

A) Zero-day attack

Explanation:

A zero-day attack exploits a vulnerability that is unknown to the vendor, typically occurring before a patch is released.

6. Which of the following is a form of physical security?

A) Firewalls
B) Biometric authentication
C) Antivirus software
D) IDS

Answer:

B) Biometric authentication

Explanation:

Biometric authentication, such as fingerprint or facial recognition, is a form of physical security used to control access to buildings, rooms, and IT systems.

7. What is the primary purpose of risk management in information security?

A) To eliminate all risks
B) To identify and mitigate risks
C) To transfer all risks
D) To ignore minor risks

Answer:

B) To identify and mitigate risks

Explanation:

The primary purpose of risk management is to identify, assess, and prioritize risks, followed by applying resources to minimize, control, and monitor the impact of risks.

8. What is the first step in the incident response process?

A) Eradication
B) Recovery
C) Preparation
D) Identification

Answer:

C) Preparation

Explanation:

The first step in the incident response process is preparation, where organizations establish and develop incident response policies, plans, procedures, and resources.

9. Which authentication factor category does a fingerprint belong to?

A) Something you know
B) Something you have
C) Something you are
D) Something you do

Answer:

C) Something you are

Explanation:

A fingerprint is a form of biometric authentication, which falls under the category of "something you are."

10. What is the main difference between hashing and encryption?

A) Hashing is reversible, encryption is not
B) Encryption is reversible, hashing is not
C) Both hashing and encryption are reversible
D) Neither hashing nor encryption is reversible

Answer:

B) Encryption is reversible, hashing is not

Explanation:

Encryption is a reversible process used for confidentiality, while hashing is a one-way function used for integrity.

11. What type of attack occurs when an attacker attempts to gain unauthorized access to a network by pretending to be a trusted host?

A) Replay Attack
B) Spoofing Attack
C) Brute Force Attack
D) Phishing Attack

Answer:

B) Spoofing Attack

Explanation:

A spoofing attack occurs when an attacker disguises communication or data to appear as if it's coming from a trusted source, thereby gaining unauthorized access to a system or network.

12. Which protocol is used to securely manage network devices?

A) HTTP
B) SNMP
C) SSH
D) Telnet

Answer:

C) SSH

Explanation:

SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol used for securely managing network devices and systems by providing encrypted communication over insecure networks.

13. What is the purpose of using digital signatures?

A) To ensure data confidentiality
B) To verify the integrity and authenticity of data
C) To provide a secure channel for data transmission
D) To anonymize data

Answer:

B) To verify the integrity and authenticity of data

Explanation:

Digital signatures are used to verify the integrity and authenticity of data by ensuring that the data has not been altered and confirming the identity of the signer.

14. What type of security control is an antivirus software?

A) Preventive
B) Detective
C) Corrective
D) Compensating

Answer:

A) Preventive

Explanation:

Antivirus software is a preventive security control as it helps in preventing malware infections by scanning and blocking malicious files and software.

15. Which of the following best describes a honeypot?

A) A security mechanism to detect vulnerabilities
B) A decoy system designed to attract attackers
C) A tool used for encrypting data
D) A firewall used for protecting network traffic

Answer:

B) A decoy system designed to attract attackers

Explanation:

A honeypot is a decoy system or network set up to attract and trap attackers, thereby protecting the actual system or network from unauthorized access or attacks.

16. What type of analysis involves identifying vulnerabilities without actually testing them?

A) Vulnerability Scanning
B) Penetration Testing
C) Risk Assessment
D) Threat Modeling

Answer:

D) Threat Modeling

Explanation:

Threat modeling involves identifying and analyzing potential threats and vulnerabilities in a system or application, often without actively testing them, to enhance security.

17. Which of the following is used to provide security for email communication through encryption and digital signatures?

A) SSL/TLS
B) HTTPS
C) S/MIME
D) WPA2

Answer:

C) S/MIME

Explanation:

S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) is used to secure email communication by providing confidentiality, integrity, and authentication through encryption and digital signatures.

18. What term is used to describe the practice of securely deleting data to prevent unauthorized recovery?

A) Data Masking
B) Data Sanitization
C) Data Encryption
D) Data Obfuscation

Answer:

B) Data Sanitization

Explanation:

Data sanitization is the practice of securely deleting data from storage media to prevent unauthorized recovery and ensure the data cannot be reconstructed or retrieved.

19. Which of the following security concepts ensures that data is accessible and usable when needed?

A) Confidentiality
B) Integrity
C) Availability
D) Non-Repudiation

Answer:

C) Availability

Explanation:

The concept of availability in information security ensures that data and resources are accessible and usable by authorized users when needed, preventing disruptions in service.

20. What is the primary function of a Certificate Authority (CA) in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)?

A) Generating public and private keys
B) Issuing and managing digital certificates
C) Encrypting and decrypting data
D) Authenticating users and devices

Answer:

B) Issuing and managing digital certificates

Explanation:

In a PKI, the primary function of a Certificate Authority (CA) is to issue, revoke, and manage digital certificates, which are used to verify the authenticity of public keys.

21. Which security incident involves unauthorized access and collection of user data for malicious purposes?

A) Data Breach
B) DDoS Attack
C) SQL Injection
D) Cross-Site Scripting

Answer:

A) Data Breach

Explanation:

A data breach is a security incident where unauthorized individuals access and collect sensitive and confidential user data, often for malicious purposes such as identity theft or financial fraud.

22. What is the main objective of security awareness training?

A) To teach users how to program security software
B) To inform and educate users about security policies and best practices
C) To enforce security policies on user devices
D) To monitor user behavior for suspicious activities

Answer:

B) To inform and educate users about security policies and best practices

Explanation:

The main objective of security awareness training is to inform and educate users about security policies, procedures, and best practices to enhance organizational security and prevent security incidents.

23. Which of the following protocols provides secure file transfer capabilities?

A) FTP
B) HTTP
C) SFTP
D) SMTP

Answer:

C) SFTP

Explanation:

SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) provides secure file transfer capabilities by encrypting both commands and data, ensuring confidentiality and integrity during transit.

24. What type of attack involves sending unsolicited messages to a large number of users, typically for advertising or phishing purposes?

A) Spam
B) Spear Phishing
C) Vishing
D) Whaling

Answer:

A) Spam

Explanation:

Spam involves sending unsolicited messages, usually emails, to a large number of users for various purposes, including advertising, phishing, or spreading malware.

25. Which of the following is a security measure to protect sensitive information from being disclosed on social media?

A) Antivirus software
B) Firewalls
C) Social Engineering
D) Information Security Policy

Answer:

D) Information Security Policy

Explanation:

An Information Security Policy outlines the guidelines and procedures for protecting sensitive information, including measures to prevent disclosure on social media.


This practice test for the CompTIA Security+ exam should help in your preparation by giving you an idea of the types of questions that may appear and how to approach them. Keep reviewing and understanding the concepts behind each question, and don’t forget to explore other study materials and practice tests to further solidify your knowledge. Good luck on your journey to becoming CompTIA Security+ certified!

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